Which energy is converted from water to develop hydroelectricity?
a) Potential Energy
b) Kinetic Energy
c) Both Potential and Kinetic Energy
d) None of these
In hydropower generation, the generator converts:
a) Hydraulic energy into mechanical energy
b) Mechanical into elctrical energy
c) Hydraulic energy into electrical energy
d) None of these
Hydropower is a:
a) Renewable Energy
b) Non-renewable Energy
c) Both of the above
d) None of these
Which of the following has the highest hydropower potential in Nepal?
a) Gross Potential
b) Technical Potential
c) Economical Potential
d) None of these
Gross potential of Nepal is:
a) 83000 MW
b) 44000 MW
c) 42000 MW
d)None of these
World's largest hydropower project is:
a) Upper Tamakoshi HEP
b) Itaipu Dam Project
c) Xiluodu Project
d) Three Gorges Project
Which region has the world's most hydropower potential?
a) Asia
b) Latin America
c) Europe
d) Africa
The Three Gorges Project has a capacity of:
a) 20000 MW
b) 21500 MW
c) 22500 MW
d) 22000 MW
Nepal's largest storage hydropower project is:
a) Kulekhani-I HEP
b) Kulekhani-II HEP
c) Kulekhani-III HEP
d) Upper Tamakoshi HEP
Nepal's largest peaking hydropower based on capacity project is:
a) Kaligandaki 'A' HEP
b) Middle Marsyandi HEP
c) Marsyangdi HEP
d) Upper Tamakoshi HEP
Upper Tamakoshi HEP has a capacity with a peaking hour of:
a) 456 MW with 5 hrs Peaking
b) 456 MW with 4 hrs Peaking
c)456 MW with 6 hrs Peaking
d)456 MW with 3 hrs Peaking
For a low head plant, which turbine is used?
a) Pelton Turbine
b) Francis Turbine
c) Kaplan Turbine
d) All of these
For a very high head plant, which turbine is used?
a) Pelton Turbine
b) Francis Turbine
c) Kaplan Turbine
d) All of these
For a medium head plant, which turbine is used?
a) Pelton Turbine
b) Francis Turbine
c) Kaplan Turbine
d) All of these
To develop a hydropower project, approval is required from:
a) 7 Ministries and 23 Departments
b) 5 Ministries and 13 Departments
c) 1 Ministry and 23 Departments
d) 7 Ministries and 13 Departments
The cheapest plant in operation and maintenance is.......
A) Steam power plant
B) Nuclear power plant
C) Hydro-electric power plant
D) None of the above
The annual depreciation of a hydro power plant is about........
A) 0.5% to 1.5%
B) 10% to 15%
C) 15% to 20%
D) 20% to 25%
The power output from a hydro-electric power plant depends on three parameters.......
A) Head, type and dam of discharge
B) Head, discharge and efficiency of the system
C) Efficiency of the system, type of draft tube and type of turbine used
D) Type of dam, discharge and type of catchment area
Location of the surge tank in a hydro-electric station is near to the.......
A) Tailrace
B) Turbine
C) Reservoir
D) None of the above
Which of the following is the correct equation for the electrical power generated by the hydroelectric power plant?
a) 75×0.736 wQHη Watt
b) (7.5/0.736) × wQHη Watt
c) 0.845 ×wQHη Watt
d) 9.81 ×wQHη
Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
a) Availability of water
b) Large catchment area
c) Rocky land
d) Sedimentation
The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends upon ___________
a) Head of water
b) Quantity of water
c) Specific weight of water
d) Efficiency of Alternator
Hydroelectric power plant is __________
a) Non-renewable source of energy
b) Conventional source of energy
c) Non-conventional source of energy
d) Continuous source of energy
Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in ____________
a) Flat areas
b) Deserts
c) Hilly areas
d) Deltas
Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?
a) Efficiency of hydroelectric power plant does not reduce with age
b) Its construction coast is very high and takes a long time for erection.
c) It is very neat and clean plant because no smoke or ash is produced.
d) Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.
Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power plant?
a) no fuel requirement
b) low running cost
c) continuous power source
d) no standby losses
Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?
a) Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
b) Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
c) Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
d) Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant
The minimum power which a hydropower plant can generate throughout the year is called as ________________
a) power plant capacity
b) power plant load
c) firm power
d) water power
If the peak load for a power plant equals the plant capacity then the ratio of the capacity factor to load factor will be _________________
a) 1
b) 0
c) < 1
d) > 1
If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW during a given week and the energy produced is 58, 80,000 kWh, the capacity factor for the plant for the week will be ___________________
a) 35%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 65%
During a certain week a power plant turns out 84,00,000 kWh and the peak load during the week is 100,000 kW. What is the load factor during the week?
a) 40%
b) 45%
c) 50%
d) 60%
A canal drop is 6 meters and discharges available through the turbine is 50 cumec. Find the electrical energy available.
a) 2352 KW
b) 2352 MW
c) 2.352 kW
d) 235.2 kW
The ratio of maximum power utilised to the maximum power available is _____________
a) power factor
b) plant use factor
c) reserve capacity
d) capacity factor
The net amount of power which is continuously available from a plant without any break is known as _____________
a) firm power
b) secondary power
c) power factor
d) utilization factor
The value of power factor is generally _____________________
a) equal to unity
b) less than unity
c) greater than unity
d) equal to zero
To ensure maximum overall plant efficiency, the rated head should be equal to ______________
a) the design head
b) the gross head
c) the operating head
d) effective head
The difference of head at the point of entry and exit of turbine is _______________
a) design head
b) gross head
c) effective head
d) rated head
The load on a hydel plant varies from a minimum of 10,000 kW to a maximum of 35,000 kW. Two turbo-generators of capacities 20,000 kW each have been installed. Calculate Plant factor.
a) 50%
b) 51%
c) 56.2%
d) 59.7%
Calculate utilisation factor if the maximum power utilised is 40,000 kW and two turbo generators installed each of capacity 23,000 kW.
a) 73%
b) 87%
c) 57.5%
d) 63%
If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW during a given week. Calculate the utilization factor.
a) 0.35
b) 0.50
c) 0.70
d) 0.60
400 cumecs of water are being released from dam storage to meet the downstream demand through the turbines of the connected hydro plant. The effective head of water acting on the turbines is 50 m. The efficiency of the hydro plant is 0.8. The electrical power generated from this plant is __________________
a) 1,56,800 MW
b) 156.8 M kW
c) 156.8 MW
d) 156.8 kW
What is the highest elevation of water level that can be maintained in the reservoir without any spillway discharge either with gated or non-gated spillway?
a) Normal Water level
b) Minimum Water level
c) Weighted average level
d) Operating head
The minimum power which a hydropower plant can generate throughout the year is called as ________________
a) power plant capacity
b) power plant load
c) firm power
d) water power
If the peak load for a power plant equals the plant capacity then the ratio of the capacity factor to load factor will be _________________
a) 1
b) 0
c) < 1
d) > 1
If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW during a given week and the energy produced is 58, 80,000 kWh, the capacity factor for the plant for the week will be ___________________
a) 35%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 65%
During a certain week a power plant turns out 84,00,000 kWh and the peak load during the week is 100,000 kW. What is the load factor during the week?
a) 40%
b) 45%
c) 50%
d) 60%
A canal drop is 6 meters and discharges available through the turbine is 50 cumec. Find the electrical energy available.
a) 2352 KW
b) 2352 MW
c) 2.352 kW
d) 235.2 kW
The ratio of maximum power utilised to the maximum power available is _____________
a) power factor
b) plant use factor
c) reserve capacity
d) capacity factor
The net amount of power which is continuously available from a plant without any break is known as _____________
a) firm power
b) secondary power
c) power factor
d) utilization factor
The value of power factor is generally _____________________
a) equal to unity
b) less than unity
c) greater than unity
d) equal to zero
To ensure maximum overall plant efficiency, the rated head should be equal to ______________
a) the design head
b) the gross head
c) the operating head
d) effective head
The difference of head at the point of entry and exit of turbine is _______________
a) design head
b) gross head
c) effective head
d) rated head
The load on a hydel plant varies from a minimum of 10,000 kW to a maximum of 35,000 kW. Two turbo-generators of capacities 20,000 kW each have been installed. Calculate Plant factor.
a) 50%
b) 51%
c) 56.2%
d) 59.7%
Calculate utilisation factor if the maximum power utilised is 40,000 kW and two turbo generators installed each of capacity 23,000 kW.
a) 73%
b) 87%
c) 57.5%
d) 63%
If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW during a given week. Calculate the utilization factor.
a) 0.35
b) 0.50
c) 0.70
d) 0.60
400 cumecs of water are being released from dam storage to meet the downstream demand through the turbines of the connected hydro plant. The effective head of water acting on the turbines is 50 m. The efficiency of the hydro plant is 0.8. The electrical power generated from this plant is __________________
a) 1,56,800 MW
b) 156.8 M kW
c) 156.8 MW
d) 156.8 kW
What is the highest elevation of water level that can be maintained in the reservoir without any spillway discharge either with gated or non-gated spillway?
a) Normal Water level
b) Minimum Water level
c) Weighted average level
d) Operating head
What is the primary function of a Diversion Structure in a hydropower project?
a) To filter out fine sediments from the water
b) To divert water from the natural river course to the intake
c) To store water for later use
d) To provide a reserve of water for augmented flow
What is the role of the Intake in a hydropower plant?
a) To discharge water back to the river
b) To regulate water flow and prevent debris from entering the penstock
c) To store water for flood control
d) To convert water energy into electricity
What is the primary function of a Gravel Trap in a hydropower scheme?
a) To filter fine silt particles
b) To boost the water pressure
c) To remove gravel and other debris upstream of the intake
d) To store water during peak flow periods
What is the primary purpose of a Settling Basin in hydropower design?
a) To increase the water velocity
b) To allow sediment and heavy particles to settle by slowing down water velocity
c) To redirect water into the penstock
d) To remove debris using high-pressure jets
What is the main function of the Headrace Conveyance system?
a) To store water temporarily
b) To filter debris from the water
c) To transport water from the intake to the fore bay
d) To regulate the water pressure upstream of the turbine
What is the primary function of the Fore Bay in a hydropower plant?
a) To provide a reservoir for water storage and regulate flow to the powerhouse
b) To filter out sediments from the water
c) To act as the main electricity generation unit
d) To increase the water velocity prior to the surge tank
What is the purpose of a Surge Tank/Head Tank in a hydropower system?
a) To store large quantities of water for emergency use
b) To absorb pressure fluctuations (water hammer) in the penstock
c) To directly drive the turbine
d) To filter out debris from the water
What is the primary role of the Penstock in a hydropower plant?
a) To discharge water back into the river
b) To convey water with high pressure and velocity from the fore bay to the turbines
c) To filter sediment from the water
d) To regulate water flow into the intake
What is the function of Anchor Blocks/Support Piers in a hydropower project?
a) To support and stabilize the penstock
b) To regulate water flow into the turbine
c) To store water during low-flow periods
d) To act as the primary electricity conversion unit
Which statement best describes the primary function of the Powerhouse?
a) It diverts water from the river
b) It houses the turbines and generators to convert water energy into electricity
c) It stores water for flood control
d) It filters sediment and debris before the water reaches the turbines
What is the primary purpose of a Tailrace in a hydropower plant?
a) To increase the water head before it enters the turbine
b) To channel the discharged water back into the river while maintaining ecological balance
c) To divert water from the intake
d) To regulate the water flow into the intake structure
What is the primary function of a Diversion Structure in a hydropower project?
a) To filter out fine sediments from the water
b) To divert water from the natural river course to the intake
c) To store water for later use
d) To provide a reserve of water for augmented flow
What is the role of the Intake in a hydropower plant?
a) To discharge water back to the river
b) To regulate water flow and prevent debris from entering the penstock
c) To store water for flood control
d) To convert water energy into electricity
What is the primary function of a Gravel Trap in a hydropower scheme?
a) To filter fine silt particles
b) To boost the water pressure
c) To remove gravel and other debris upstream of the intake
d) To store water during peak flow periods
What is the primary purpose of a Settling Basin in hydropower design?
a) To increase the water velocity
b) To allow sediment and heavy particles to settle by slowing down water velocity
c) To redirect water into the penstock
d) To remove debris using high-pressure jets
What is the main function of the Headrace Conveyance system?
a) To store water temporarily
b) To filter debris from the water
c) To transport water from the intake to the fore bay
d) To regulate the water pressure upstream of the turbine
What is the primary function of the Fore Bay in a hydropower plant?
a) To provide a reservoir for water storage and regulate flow to the powerhouse
b) To filter out sediments from the water
c) To act as the main electricity generation unit
d) To increase the water velocity prior to the surge tank
What is the purpose of a Surge Tank/Head Tank in a hydropower system?
a) To store large quantities of water for emergency use
b) To absorb pressure fluctuations (water hammer) in the penstock
c) To directly drive the turbine
d) To filter out debris from the water
What is the primary role of the Penstock in a hydropower plant?
a) To discharge water back into the river
b) To convey water with high pressure and velocity from the fore bay to the turbines
c) To filter sediment from the water
d) To regulate water flow into the intake
What is the function of Anchor Blocks/Support Piers in a hydropower project?
a) To support and stabilize the penstock
b) To regulate water flow into the turbine
c) To store water during low-flow periods
d) To act as the primary electricity conversion unit
Which statement best describes the primary function of the Powerhouse?
a) It diverts water from the river
b) It houses the turbines and generators to convert water energy into electricity
c) It stores water for flood control
d) It filters sediment and debris before the water reaches the turbines
What is the primary purpose of a Tailrace in a hydropower plant?
a) To increase the water head before it enters the turbine
b) To channel the discharged water back into the river while maintaining ecological balance
c) To divert water from the intake
d) To regulate the water flow into the intake structure
Which component of a dam is designed to allow the passage of surplus water from the reservoir?
a) Penstock
b) Spillway
c) Abutments
d) Gallery
The valley slopes on either side of a dam, to which its ends are fixed, are known as:
a) Gallery
b) Abutments
c) Free Board
d) Diversion Tunnel
Which dam component is a level or gently sloping tunnel-like passage used to accommodate drainage and instrumentation?
a) Sluiceway
b) Gallery
c) Surge Tank
d) Draft Tube
What is the primary function of a sluiceway in dam design?
a) To store water
b) To clear silt accumulation in the reservoir
c) To divert water for hydropower
d) To support the dam’s structure
In dam terminology, what does “free board” refer to?
a) The dam’s overall height
b) The vertical distance between the maximum water level in the reservoir and the top of the dam
c) The width of the dam at its base
d) The depth of the reservoir below the dam
Which term describes the minimum storage level in a reservoir below which water is not withdrawn?
a) Free Board
b) Dead Storage Level
c) Spillway Level
d) Active Storage Level
What is the main purpose of a diversion tunnel in dam construction?
a) To provide an alternative water route during construction
b) To generate hydropower
c) To store flood water permanently
d) To drain seepage water from the dam body
Which dam type is primarily constructed to store excess water for multiple uses such as irrigation, water supply, and hydroelectric power generation?
a) Diversion Dam
b) Detention Dam
c) Storage Dam
d) Check Dam
Which dam is constructed mainly to divert river water into canals or conduits?
a) Storage Dam
b) Diversion Dam
c) Detention Dam
d) Coffer Dam
Under hydraulic design classification, which dam allows the overflow of surplus water above its structure?
a) Non-Overflow Dam
b) Overflow Dam
c) Arch Dam
d) Gravity Dam
Which type of dam resists water pressure primarily by using its own weight?
a) Arch Dam
b) Buttress Dam
c) Gravity Dam
d) Embankment Dam
Which dam is characterized by its curved shape with the convex side facing upstream to effectively transfer water pressure to the abutments?
a) Arch Dam
b) Buttress Dam
c) Gravity Dam
d) Embankment Dam
Which dam structure features an upstream sloping deck supported by a series of reinforced concrete buttresses or piers?
a) Arch Dam
b) Buttress Dam
c) Gravity Dam
d) Embankment Dam
Embankment dams are typically constructed using which of the following materials?
a) Concrete and steel
b) Locally available soils, gravel, and sand
c) Reinforced polymers
d) Prefabricated metal panels
Which of the following is NOT a typical component found in a hydropower station or storage plant?
a) Surge Tank
b) Turbine
c) Draft Tube
d) Waterwheel
In a hydropower plant, what is the primary function of a surge tank?
a) Increase water speed
b) Regulate water pressure transients
c) Generate additional electricity
d) Provide structural reinforcement
Which dam is primarily constructed for soil conservation by trapping debris such as sand, gravel, and driftwood?
a) Check (Debris) Dam
b) Storage Dam
c) Diversion Dam
d) Coffer Dam
Which dam component provides a passage used for drilling grout holes and installing monitoring instrumentation?
a) Diversion Tunnel
b) Gallery
c) Abutments
d) Sluiceway
What is the main advantage of an arch dam compared to a gravity dam?
a) Greater storage capacity
b) Reduced material requirements due to arch action
c) Better silt management
d) Ease of construction in all terrains
Which classification of dam is based on the construction method and materials used?
a) Function and Use Classification
b) Hydraulic Design Classification
c) Structural Design Classification
d) Environmental Impact Classification
Under the function and use classification, which dam is built primarily to store water for irrigation, water supply, and power generation?
a) Diversion Dam
b) Storage Dam
c) Detention Dam
d) Check Dam
In a hydropower plant, which component converts the mechanical energy of water into electrical energy?
a) Turbine
b) Generator
c) Draft Tube
d) Surge Tank
Which type of dam is best suited for a deep, narrow valley where the forces can be efficiently transmitted to the side walls?
a) Embankment Dam
b) Gravity Dam
c) Arch Dam
d) Buttress Dam
What is the role of a coffer dam during dam construction?
a) To permanently divert water
b) To temporarily isolate the construction area from river water
c) To store water for later use
d) To generate hydroelectric power
Which dam component commonly houses instruments for monitoring seepage and dam stability?
a) Abutments
b) Gallery
c) Sluiceway
d) Free Board
Which of the following is NOT one of the typical purposes of a dam as mentioned in the text?
a) Flood Mitigation
b) Recreation
c) Industrial Waste Management
d) Navigation
What design feature allows a gravity dam to effectively resist the pressure of the water?
a) Its curved shape
b) Its massive weight
c) Its specialized drainage system
d) Its flexible structure
Under hydraulic design classification, a dam that prevents water from overtopping its crest is known as a?
a) Overflow Dam
b) Non-Overflow Dam
c) Arch Dam
d) Check Dam
Which type of dam is primarily constructed to control rapid floodwaters and protect downstream areas?
a) Storage Dam
b) Detention Dam
c) Diversion Dam
d) Embankment Dam
Which dam classification considers the dam’s ability to safely allow excess water to flow over its top?
a) Overflow Dam
b) Non-Overflow Dam
c) Gravity Dam
d) Check Dam
According to the classification as per height, a dam with a height of 120 m should be classified as:
a) Low Dam
b) Medium Dam
c) High Dam or Large Dam
d) None of the above
What is the height range for a dam classified as a Medium Dam?
a) Less than 50 m
b) Between 50 m and 100 m
c) Greater than 100 m
d) 30 m to 70 m
Which classification of dam distinguishes between dam types based on construction materials?
a) Classification as per Height
b) Classification as per Material of Construction
c) Classification as per Site Selection
d) Classification as per Function
Which of the following is NOT included as a factor in the selection of a dam site?
a) Foundation
b) Topography
c) Construction Material
d) Aesthetic Color
In stability analysis, the factor of safety against overturning for a dam should generally be greater than:
a) 1.0
b) 1.5
c) 2.0
d) 2.5
The vertical stress distribution at the base of a dam is given by the equation:
p = Direct Stress + _______
a) Lateral Stress
b) Uplift Pressure
c) Bending Stress
d) Frictional Stress
Sliding (or shear failure) in a dam occurs when:
a) The vertical forces are excessive
b) The net horizontal force exceeds the frictional resistance
c) The overturning moments are balanced
d) The dam material experiences too much compression
Which foundation treatment method involves drilling shallow holes to inject a grout mixture at low pressure?
a) Curtain Grouting
b) Consolidation Grouting
c) Surface Stepping
d) Shear Key Installation
Why is the foundation surface stepped during dam construction?
a) To reduce concrete usage
b) To increase frictional resistance against sliding
c) To simplify the layout
d) To accommodate drainage pipes
Curtain grouting is performed primarily to:
a) Prevent tension cracks
b) Provide a waterproof barrier against leakage
c) Increase the dam’s height
d) Enhance compressive strength
Which factor is most critical when selecting the type of dam?
a) Geology of foundation and river bank
b) Local cultural preferences
c) Aesthetic appeal
d) Proximity to urban areas
Which topographic feature is most favorable for the construction of a dam?
a) V-shaped narrow gorge
b) Wide, flat plain
c) Urban area
d) Coastal dune area
What does a solid rock foundation with no faults or fissures allow in terms of dam construction?
a) Only earth dams can be constructed
b) Only gravity dams can be built
c) Any type of dam can be constructed
d) Only arch dams are feasible
Which rock types provide a good foundation for the construction of a gravity dam?
a) Granite, gneiss, and schist
b) Sandstone and shale
c) Limestone and dolomite
d) Siltstone and claystone
If the foundation is composed of silt and fine sand, which type of dam is most appropriate?
a) Arch dam
b) Earthen dam or low concrete gravity dam
c) Rock fill dam
d) Overflow concrete dam
When a separate site for the spillway is available, which dam type may be preferred?
a) Arch dam
b) Earthen dam
c) Gravity dam with overflow spillway
d) Rock fill dam
What is the primary purpose of incorporating a spillway in a dam design?
a) To dissipate water energy
b) To safely dispose of flood water
c) To support the dam structure
d) To supply water for irrigation
Why is a roadway often provided on the top of a dam?
a) For agricultural activities
b) For recreational access
c) For maintenance and operational access
d) For water supply distribution
When vertical acceleration acts downward, what happens to the effective weight of the dam?
a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains unchanged
d) It fluctuates unpredictably
In wave pressure calculations, what does the variable hw represent?
a) Wind velocity
b) Fetch length of the water body
c) Wave height from crest to trough
d) Dam height
According to the design principles, what is the maximum wave pressure intensity in terms of hw?
a) 1.2 × hw
b) 2.4 × hw
c) 3 × hw
d) 0.5 × hw
Which condition is NOT suitable for constructing a gravity dam?
a) Presence of a solid rock foundation
b) Dam height greater than 250 m
c) Adequate base width
d) Limited water pressure
In assessing the structural stability of a concrete gravity dam, which of the following is not typically considered?
a) Resistance to sliding
b) Resistance to lifting
c) Resistance to overturning
d) Resistance to seepage
Which method is not mentioned as a stability analysis technique for gravity dams?
a) Gravity method
b) Trial load twist method
c) Slab analogy method
d) Finite element method
Which of the following is a common demerit of earthen dams?
a) High construction cost
b) Risk of damage or destruction due to overtopping
c) Exceptional durability
d) Minimal maintenance requirements
What is an effective measure to prevent erosion of the downstream toe in an earthen dam?
a) Increasing spillway capacity
b) Reducing dam height
c) Providing stone pitching or riprap protection
d) Installing vertical reinforcements
What is the thumb rule for determining the top width (W) of very low earthen dams?
a) W = H/3 + 3
b) W = H/5 + 3
c) W = H/5
d) W = 1.65(H + 1.5)1/3
How is the free board of a dam generally determined?
a) It is equal to the dam height
b) It is 1.5 times the wave height (hw)
c) It is half of the dam height
d) It is a fixed measurement of 2 m
Which of the following is used to prevent seepage through an earthen dam embankment?
a) Vertical reinforcement
b) Horizontal drainage filter
c) Increasing the dam height
d) Installing additional overflow channels
Aside from horizontal drainage filters, what is another method used to prevent seepage through an earthen dam?
a) Providing chimney drains
b) Widening the dam
c) Reducing spillway capacity
d) Installing vertical concrete cylinders
Which dam type is typically chosen when a large integrated spillway is required?
a) Earthen dam with a separate spillway
b) Overflow concrete gravity dam
c) Arch dam
d) Rock fill dam
What primarily resists overturning in a gravity dam?
a) Lateral forces
b) The dam’s weight
c) Foundation reinforcement
d) Seepage control measures
When vertical acceleration acts upward, how is the effective weight of the dam affected?
a) It decreases due to upward inertia
b) It increases due to downward inertia
c) It remains the same
d) It becomes negligible
What percentage of the dam height is recommended for establishing filter drainage in an earthen dam?
a) 10–15%
b) 25–30%
c) 50–60%
d) 75–80%
Why is it important to keep the phreatic (seepage) line within the downstream face of an earthen dam?
a) To reduce construction costs
b) To prevent sloughing or erosion of the dam face
c) To increase reservoir capacity
d) For better aesthetic integration
What are the two sub-methods of the gravity method for dam stability analysis?
a) Graphical and Numerical methods
b) Graphical and Analytical methods
c) Empirical and Analytical methods
d) Experimental and Graphical methods
In dam stability analysis, why are moments taken about the lower middle third of the base?
a) To simplify calculations
b) To accurately locate the resultant force
c) Because that area experiences the highest stress
d) To minimize uplift effects
In a stability analysis against sliding, which force primarily provides the necessary resistance?
a) The lateral hydrostatic pressure
b) Frictional force resulting from the dam's weight
c) Uplift pressure
d) Seismic inertia forces
Which environmental parameters directly influence the wave pressure exerted on a dam?
a) Dam crest elevation and spillway design
b) Wind velocity and fetch length
c) Downstream slope gradient and foundation type
d) Seepage measures and roadway design
How does geology influence dam design?
a) It only affects the dam’s aesthetic appearance
b) It governs the strength of the foundation and the type of dam that can be safely constructed
c) It is only a minor consideration compared to hydrology
d) It solely determines the availability of construction materials
Which factor is NOT typically considered a general design consideration for dams?
a) Hydrologic considerations
b) Construction material availability
c) Foundation treatment
d) Local tourism development
What structural protection measure is typically used on both upstream and downstream slopes in an earthen dam?
a) Installing additional overflow channels
b) Protecting with riprap, berms, or vegetation
c) Increasing the dam’s thickness
d) Reinforcing with steel beams
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of curtain grouting in dam construction?
a) To support the dam structure
b) To form a principal barrier against seepage and reduce uplift pressures
c) To enhance the dam’s aesthetic appearance
d) To provide additional reservoir storage
What is the typical spacing between the drilled holes for high-pressure curtain grouting?
a) 0.5 to 0.8 m
b) 1.2 to 1.5 m
c) 2.0 to 2.5 m
d) 3.0 to 3.5 m
For strong rock foundations, the depth of grouting holes is typically what percentage of the upstream water head?
a) 10–20%
b) 30–40%
c) 50–60%
d) 70–80%
In the case of poor rock foundations, the grouting hole depth may be as much as what percentage of the water pressure head?
a) 30–40%
b) 50–60%
c) 70%
d) 90%
The grouting pressure during high-pressure grouting is generally expressed as 2.5 D N/cm². In this expression, what does "D" represent?
a) The diameter of the drilled hole
b) The depth of grouting (in meters) below the surface
c) The density of the grout
d) The distance between holes
High-pressure grouting is typically performed in stages of approximately what depth each?
a) 5 m
b) 10 m
c) 15 m
d) 20 m
Curtain grouting may be accomplished from which of the following access points?
a) Only the foundation gallery
b) Only the upstream face of the dam
c) Only from tunnels in the foundation rock
d) From the foundation gallery, upstream face, or tunnels depending on the case
Which of the following is NOT typically a component of the drainage filter system in an earth dam?
a) Rock toe protection
b) Horizontal blanket
c) Chimney drain
d) Vertical reinforcement
Installing an impervious cutoff to 50% of the foundation depth in an earth dam typically reduces discharge by what percentage?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 65%
When an impervious cutoff is installed to 90% of the foundation depth, the discharge is reduced by approximately:
a) 25%
b) 40%
c) 65%
d) 80%
Relief wells and drain trenches are constructed in an earth dam primarily to control:
a) Overtopping
b) Large-scale seepage that can cause sand boiling near the dam toe
c) Structural cracking
d) Ice formation
What is the primary function of a spillway in a dam?
a) To store excess water
b) To create recreational water areas
c) To safely pass excess water when the reservoir is full
d) To generate hydroelectric power
Which spillway type is defined as one that uses pressure to pass water?
a) Pressure spillway
b) Non-pressure spillway
c) Ogee spillway
d) Chute spillway
Which spillway consists of a vertical shaft followed by a horizontal conduit and is also known as a Morning Glory or Bell Mouth spillway?
a) Chute spillway
b) Siphon spillway
c) Shaft spillway
d) Tunnel spillway
The design of an ogee spillway is based on shaping the downstream face of the weir to mimic which feature?
a) The river bed profile
b) The lower nappe of a freely falling water jet
c) The dam’s crest line
d) The upstream water surface
In a side channel spillway, after spilling from its crest, the water is diverted in which direction?
a) Downward in a straight line
b) At a 45° angle
c) Turned 90° to flow parallel to the crest
d) Reversed back into the reservoir
A straight drop spillway is typically reinforced by which additional structure to prevent downstream scouring?
a) Riprap
b) A reinforced concrete wall
c) An artificial pool with a concrete apron and a low secondary dam
d) Vegetative cover
How is surplus water discharged in a chute (trough/open channel) spillway?
a) Through a vertical shaft
b) Through a steeply sloped open channel
c) Via a siphon action
d) Via an underground passage
A siphon spillway operates by which mechanism?
a) Gravity-only flow
b) Siphonic action through an inverted U-shaped conduit
c) Mechanical gating
d) Electric pumping systems
What is the primary function of a hydraulic jump stilling basin at the toe of a spillway?
a) To increase water velocity
b) To dissipate excess energy by forming a hydraulic jump
c) To store water temporarily
d) To filter debris from the water
When is a roller bucket typically used for energy dissipation on a spillway?
a) When the tail water depth is less than the post-jump depth
b) When the tail water depth is much greater than the post-jump depth
c) When no hydraulic jump is formed
d) During very low flow conditions only
A deflector (flip bucket, ski jump, or trajectory bucket) is employed when:
a) Tail water depth is adequate for a hydraulic jump
b) Tail water depth is insufficient for forming a hydraulic jump
c) Water velocity is extremely low
d) The spillway is equipped with mechanical gates
In determining the selection of an energy dissipator, if the TW curve coincides with the Y2 curve, which approach is most suitable?
a) Roller bucket
b) Hydraulic jump stilling basin with a concrete apron
c) Deflector bucket
d) No energy dissipator is needed
USBR Stilling Basin Type IV is used for flow conditions where the Froude number is within which range?
a) Greater than 4.5
b) Between 2.5 and 4.5
c) Less than 2.5
d) Froude number is not a factor
Stop-log or flash boards used in dam gating are typically made of:
a) Plastic
b) Timber, steel, or concrete beams
c) Fiberglass
d) Aluminum
Vertical lift gates in dam structures typically operate by moving in which direction?
a) Horizontally
b) Vertically
c) Diagonally
d) In a circular path
What is the defining feature of radial gates in dam design?
a) They are rectangular
b) They are hinged and follow a circular arc
c) They slide horizontally
d) They are fixed and do not move
Ring gates are distinguished from radial gates by their operation as:
a) Fixed panels
b) Cylindrical drums that move vertically within an annular chamber
c) Sliding horizontally
d) Rotating valves
Sector gates are most commonly used in which of the following applications?
a) Hydropower penstock control
b) Navigation locks where water levels differ
c) Spillway energy dissipation
d) Seepage control systems
What is the primary function of a flap gate in dam design?
a) To regulate the main water flow
b) To remove floating debris from the river
c) To function as an emergency spillway
d) To support the dam structure
Deep seated vertical gates are primarily used for controlling water flow to which application?
a) Surface irrigation
b) Hydropower intakes
c) Recreational water features
d) Wastewater discharge
Cylindrical gates in dam design are primarily used for:
a) Decorative purposes
b) Shutting off water to penstocks or control valves in outlet works
c) Enhancing dam aesthetics
d) Providing walkway access
Ring follower gates in dam design are primarily used as:
a) The main operational gate
b) Emergency gates that operate in fully closed or fully open positions
c) Decorative features on the dam face
d) Supplementary spillway controls
Which statement best describes the headworks of a run‐of‐river (ROR) plant?
a) It extends from the dam crest to the turbine
b) It extends from the weir/barrage to the settling basin to withdraw sediment‐free water
c) It stores water for later use
d) It functions as the powerhouse
What is the main purpose of the headworks in an ROR plant?
a) To provide storage for flood waters
b) To withdraw the required amount of water while controlling sediment, debris, ice, and trash
c) To generate electricity directly
d) To enhance evaporation losses
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a functional ROR headwork?
a) Withdrawal of the required water amount
b) Flood bypass capability
c) Control of bed load and debris
d) Maximization of hydraulic losses
What is the main function of the intake in a water-conveyance system?
a) To store water
b) To control and withdraw water from a reservoir or river into the system
c) To generate electricity
d) To dissipate excess energy from water flow
While designing an intake, one of the primary considerations is to minimize:
a) Sediment deposition
b) Hydraulic (head) loss as water enters the system
c) Structural weight
d) Flood storage capacity
To prevent air from being drawn into the water-conducting system, the intake design must minimize the formation of:
a) Sediment layers
b) Air vortices (from hydraulic jumps or high velocity)
c) Mechanical vibrations
d) Thermal losses
The design discharge for an intake should be set to how much more than the turbine discharge?
a) 5-10% more
b) 10-20% more
c) 20-30% more
d) 30-40% more
The intake invert level is fixed based on which factor?
a) The height of the dam
b) Sediment content (bed load) and design experience
c) Ambient air temperature
d) The location of the powerhouse
What is the acceptable range for the entrance velocity at an intake system?
a) 0.1-0.3 m/s
b) 0.6-0.8 m/s (up to 1 m/s for small systems)
c) 1.5-2.0 m/s
d) Greater than 2 m/s
What is the recommended approach velocity for water entering the intake system?
a) 0.5 m/s
b) 1 m/s
c) 1.5 m/s
d) 2 m/s
The intake opening is typically designed as a broad-crested weir that can operate under which conditions?
a) Only under free-flow conditions
b) Only under submerged conditions
c) Under both submerged and free-flow conditions
d) Under gravitational forces only
In the orifice flow equation for the intake opening, the constant “C” depends on:
a) The quality and finish of the opening
b) The chemical composition of water
c) The height of the reservoir
d) The length of the weir
Which losses should be included in the hydraulic loss calculation for an intake structure?
a) Trash rack loss
b) Entrance loss
c) Transition and gate loss
d) All of the above
To prevent air entrainment at the intake, the following relation is used:
a) s × v × d > C
b) s / (v × d) > C
c) (v × d) / s > C
d) s + v + d > C
What is the main purpose of providing an air vent in the intake system?
a) To increase water speed
b) To prevent cavitation by releasing trapped air
c) To filter sediments
d) To support the inlet structure
Which factor is NOT a primary consideration when determining the location of an intake?
a) Adequate inflow and low silt content
b) Minimal head loss
c) Least environmental impact
d) Proximity to urban centers
For run-of-river plants, which intake configurations may be used?
a) Side (lateral) intake
b) Frontal intake
c) Drop intake
d) All of the above
What is the primary function of a trash rack in an intake design?
a) To reinforce the inlet structure
b) To trap large debris such as logs, boulders, and branches
c) To accelerate the flow of water
d) To adjust the water level
Why is it important to minimize sediment entry in the intake system?
a) To protect the turbines and ensure efficient operation
b) To increase water temperature
c) To improve water clarity for recreational use
d) It is not important
In intake design, how is the contraction loss due to pier or abutment effects typically accounted for?
a) The effective opening length is taken as 0.5 times the actual opening
b) The effective opening length is taken as 0.9–0.95 times the actual opening
c) It is ignored in design calculations
d) The opening is increased arbitrarily
Which factor is most important when selecting the type of intake for a ROR plant?
a) The architectural appearance of the structure
b) Site hydraulic conditions and local fluid behavior
c) The color of construction materials
d) The age of the dam
In intake design, the intake invert level is primarily fixed based on which factor?
a) The prevailing air temperature
b) Sediment (bed load) content and construction experience
c) The color of the river water
d) The design of the turbine house
What is the recommended range for the trash velocity at the intake to prevent debris entry?
a) 0.2–0.4 m/s
b) 0.6–0.75 m/s
c) 1.0–1.2 m/s
d) 1.5–2.0 m/s
How is the contraction loss due to pier or abutment effects typically accounted for in intake design?
a) The effective opening is assumed to be 0.5 times the actual opening
b) The effective opening length is taken as 0.9–0.95 times the actual opening
c) It is ignored in design calculations
d) It is doubled for safety calculations
The intake opening is generally designed as a broad-crested weir. Under which conditions can it operate?
a) Only under free-flow conditions
b) Only under submerged conditions
c) Under both submerged and free-flow conditions
d) Only during high flow events
Which of the following losses is NOT normally included when calculating hydraulic losses in an intake system?
a) Trash rack loss
b) Entrance loss
c) Transition loss
d) Thermal loss
To prevent air entrainment at the intake, the following relation is used:
a) s × v × d > C
b) s / (v × d) > C
c) (v × d) / s > C
d) s + v + d > C
What is the primary purpose of incorporating air vents in the intake system?
a) To elevate the water temperature
b) To release trapped air and prevent cavitation
c) To inject air into the water for aeration
d) To support debris removal
Which of the following is NOT a primary consideration when selecting the location of an intake?
a) Adequate inflow and low silt content
b) Minimal head loss
c) Least environmental impact
d) Aesthetic appeal of the intake structure
Why is it critical to limit the water velocity at the entrance of the intake system?
a) To increase turbulence for better mixing
b) To ensure a smooth, turbulence-free, vortex-free water entry and reduce head loss
c) To facilitate faster water conveyance
d) To allow for higher sediment transport
What is the primary objective of a settling basin (desander) in a hydropower plant?
a) To store water for peak demand
b) To remove suspended particles that cause wear on turbines and accessories
c) To increase the reservoir level
d) To generate additional electricity
Settling basins can be classified based on which of the following criteria?
a) Flushing system and prominent features
b) Water temperature and color
c) Location relative to the powerhouse
d) Type of turbine used
What is the advantage of a periodic type settling basin based on its flushing system?
a) No loss of water
b) No generation loss
c) Continuous operation without interruption
d) Fully automated flushing
What is a major disadvantage of the continuous type settling basin?
a) Generation loss during flushing
b) Continuous loss of water during flushing
c) Inability to remove sediments
d) High mechanical complexity
In a conventional type settling basin, how is the deposited sediment typically removed?
a) Automatically through a continuous mechanical system
b) Manually or with mechanical equipment after dewatering or by lowering the water level to create a rapid gravity flow
c) By using centrifugal forces
d) Through the use of hydrocyclones exclusively
The Bieri type settling basin is characterized by the use of two horizontal shutters. What is the function of the upper shutter?
a) It remains permanently fixed
b) It moves horizontally over the fixed lower shutter once sediment reaches a desired level to flush it out
c) It cools the water for turbine efficiency
d) It acts as a secondary intake
What is the unique feature of the Serpent Sediment Sluicing System (S4) in a settling basin?
a) It uses manual scrubbing tools
b) It employs a float unit (serpent) that operates under gravity, requiring no machinery or energy input
c) It continuously recirculates water without flushing sediment
d) It relies on chemical coagulation to settle sediments
What is one significant advantage of using the S4 system in a settling basin?
a) It requires additional electrical energy
b) It operates solely under gravity, reducing operational costs and energy use
c) It eliminates the need for sediment removal
d) It increases water loss during flushing
The Split & Settle method in settling basins is based on which principle?
a) Diverting the top clean water for sediment removal
b) Diverting the lower, sediment-laden water to a settling tunnel while conveying relatively clean water to the powerhouse
c) Mixing all water layers uniformly
d) Increasing the overall sediment concentration in the basin
Which physical principle does a hydrocyclone primarily use to separate sediment from water?
a) Gravitational settling
b) Centrifugal force
c) Magnetic separation
d) Filtration through screens
What range of particle sizes is typically removed by a hydrocyclone?
a) 1–10 μm
b) 5–300 μm
c) 500–1000 μm
d) Greater than 1 mm
The Hooper type settling basin is best described as a:
a) Periodic flushing system
b) Continuous flushing type where sediment is removed continuously from a bottom opening
c) System that uses chemical additives to precipitate sediment
d) Gravity-driven type with no exit for sediment
One disadvantage of the periodic type settling basin is that it:
a) Loses water continuously
b) Suffers generation loss during flushing
c) Requires extensive mechanical equipment
d) Has no sediment removal capability
What is the primary disadvantage of a continuous type settling basin?
a) Generation loss during flushing
b) Continuous loss of water during flushing
c) Requires manual sediment removal
d) High installation cost
In a Bieri type settling basin, what triggers the flushing of accumulated sediment?
a) A manual valve adjustment
b) The movement of the upper horizontal shutter over the lower fixed shutter once the sediment reaches a predetermined level
c) A sensor that detects water turbidity
d) A continuous mechanical scraper
What is a key advantage of the Serpent Sediment Sluicing System (S4) compared to other designs?
a) It requires external power for operation
b) It operates automatically under gravity without any additional machinery or energy input
c) It minimizes sediment removal
d) It is more complex to operate than the Bieri type
What is the primary benefit of the split & settle method in settling basin design?
a) It entirely eliminates the need for a settling basin
b) It diverts the dirtiest (bottom layer) water to a settling tunnel while conveying cleaner (upper layer) water to the powerhouse, thus saving construction costs
c) It increases overall sediment concentration
d) It uses chemical additives to dissolve sediments
In a hydrocyclone, what is the purpose of the vortex finder (overflow pipe extension)?
a) To increase water velocity
b) To prevent short-circuiting of the feed directly to the overflow
c) To mix sediments with water
d) To maintain constant water temperature
What shapes define a typical hydrocyclone design?
a) A rectangular vessel with vertical baffles
b) A conical vessel joined to a cylindrical section with a tangential feed inlet
c) A purely spherical container
d) A flat open channel
The Hooper type settling basin is best exemplified by which continuous flushing system?
a) A system that requires periodic shutdown for sediment removal
b) A continuous flushing type where sediment is removed from a bottom opening
c) A system that uses chemical coagulation
d) A siphon-based system
In the laminar regime (Re < 1), which equation correctly represents the settling velocity for a small, spherical particle (Stokes' Law)?
a) \(v_s = \frac{g\,(\rho_p - \rho)d^2}{18\,\mu}\)
b) \(v_s = \frac{g\,(\rho_p - \rho)d}{18\,\mu}\)
c) \(v_s = \frac{g\,(\rho_p - \rho)d^3}{18\,\mu}\)
d) \(v_s = \frac{g\,(\rho_p + \rho)d^2}{18\,\mu}\)
Expressing settling velocity using kinematic viscosity (\(\nu = \mu/\rho\)) and the relative density (\(s = \rho_p/\rho\)), which equation represents \(v_s\)?
a) \(v_s = \frac{g\,d^2}{18\,\nu}\)
b) \(v_s = \frac{g\,(s-1)d^2}{18\,\nu}\)
c) \(v_s = \frac{18\,\nu\,(s-1)}{g\,d^2}\)
d) \(v_s = \frac{g\,(1-s)d^2}{18\,\nu}\)
Under turbulent conditions, which formula correctly estimates the settling velocity for larger particles?
a) \(v_s = \frac{4\,g\,(\rho_p - \rho)d}{3\,C_d\,\rho}\)
b) \(v_s = \frac{4\,g\,(\rho_p - \rho)d^2}{3\,C_d\,\rho}\)
c) \(v_s = \frac{g\,(\rho_p - \rho)d}{3\,C_d\,\rho}\)
d) \(v_s = \frac{4\,g\,(\rho_p - \rho)d}{C_d\,\rho}\)
Which expression defines the particle Reynolds number (\(Re\)) based on the settling velocity?
a) \(Re = \frac{\rho\,v_s\,d}{\mu}\)
b) \(Re = \frac{v_s\,d}{\nu}\)
c) \(Re = \frac{v_s^2\,d}{\nu}\)
d) \(Re = \frac{g\,d}{\nu}\)
For particles where \(Re < 1\), which expression correctly represents the drag coefficient (\(C_d\))?
a) \(C_d = \frac{24}{Re}\)
b) \(C_d = \frac{12}{Re}\)
c) \(C_d = \frac{24}{Re(1+0.15\,Re^{0.687})}\)
d) \(C_d = 0.44\)
For the range \(1 \le Re \le 1000\), which expression correctly defines the drag coefficient (\(C_d\))?
a) \(C_d = \frac{24}{Re}\)
b) \(C_d = \frac{24}{Re(1+0.15\,Re^{0.687})}\)
c) \(C_d = 0.44\)
d) \(C_d = \frac{12}{Re}\)
For Reynolds numbers greater than 1000 (\(Re > 1000\)), what is the recommended value for the drag coefficient (\(C_d\))?
a) \(C_d = 0.44\)
b) \(C_d = \frac{24}{Re}\)
c) \(C_d = \frac{24}{Re(1+0.15\,Re^{0.687})}\)
d) \(C_d = \frac{12}{Re}\)
An empirical relation for settling velocity is given by \(v_s = a\,d^{0.7}\) (with \(v_s\) in cm/s and \(d\) in mm). For particles with \(d > 1\) mm, what is the approximate value of \(a\)?
a) 36
b) 44
c) 51
d) 60
Which equation represents the continuity equation for steady, uniform flow in a settling basin?
a) \(Q = B\,h\,v\)
b) \(Q = B + h + v\)
c) \(Q = \frac{B}{h\,v}\)
d) \(Q = \frac{B\,h}{v}\)
What equation is used to calculate the sediment load entering the settling basin?
a) Sediment Load = \(Q\,T\,C\)
b) Sediment Load = \(Q + T + C\)
c) Sediment Load = \(\frac{Q}{T\,C}\)
d) Sediment Load = \(Q\,C\)
Given the sediment deposit volume \(V_s\) in a basin with plan area \(L \times B\), which formula calculates the deposition depth (\(d_{dep}\))?
a) \(d_{dep} = \frac{V_s}{L\,B}\)
b) \(d_{dep} = V_s \times L \times B\)
c) \(d_{dep} = \frac{L\,B}{V_s}\)
d) \(d_{dep} = \frac{V_s\,\rho_s}{L\,B}\)
Which of the following best describes a hydraulic tunnel?
a) A surface water pipeline
b) An underground water conduit formed by excavation without disturbing the surface
c) An aerial water channel
d) A tunnel designed exclusively for vehicular traffic
Which of the following is an advantage of hydraulic tunnels?
a) Increased environmental impact due to land acquisition
b) Reduced head loss by adopting the shortest possible route
c) Higher construction risk compared to surface lines
d) Longer construction period than conventional methods
Hydraulic tunnels are particularly useful in which type of terrain?
a) Flat, urban areas
b) Rugged, mountainous regions
c) Desert areas
d) Coastal plains
Which form of hydraulic tunnel is used to connect reservoirs?
a) Spillway tunnel
b) Diversion tunnel
c) Interconnection tunnel
d) Navigational tunnel
In a non-pressure tunnel, the water flow is typically characterized by:
a) Pressurized pipe flow
b) Open channel flow with a free surface exposed to the atmosphere
c) Fully sealed flow
d) Turbulent closed-conduit flow
Which hydraulic design principle is most applicable for a pressure flow tunnel?
a) Manning's equation
b) Darcy–Weisbach equation
c) Bernoulli’s equation
d) Continuity equation
The head loss in a pressure tunnel is calculated using which of the following formulas?
a) hf = (n.l.v²)/(2gd)
b) hf = (f.l.v²)/(2gd)
c) hf = (f.l.v)/(2gd)
d) hf = (n.l.v)/(2gd)
The maximum recommended water velocity in an unlined hydraulic tunnel is approximately:
a) 1–1.5 m/s
b) 2–2.5 m/s
c) 3–3.5 m/s
d) 4–4.5 m/s
What is the empirical formula to calculate the thickness of tunnel lining (in mm) given the tunnel diameter (D) in meters?
a) Thickness = 82 × D
b) Thickness = 82 / D
c) Thickness = 82 + D
d) Thickness = D - 82
Which tunnel cross-sectional shape is most suitable when there is high internal pressure and surrounding rock quality is poor?
a) Circular Section
b) D-shaped Section
c) Horse-Shoe Section
d) Rectangular Section
Which cross-sectional shape is considered a compromise between structural strength and ease of construction, and is often preferred in tunnel design?
a) Circular Section
b) D-shaped Section
c) Horse-Shoe Section
d) Elliptical Section
The New Austrian Tunnel Method (NATM) is best described as:
a) A method that relies solely on heavy machinery for excavation
b) A construction strategy that utilizes the strength of the surrounding rock and soil
c) An outdated tunneling technique used only in the past
d) A process that exclusively employs full face blasting
Which tunneling method involves excavating a smaller portion (heading) first and then enlarging it to the full tunnel size?
a) Full face blasting
b) Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM)
c) Heading and Benching
d) Cut and Cover Method
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of tunnel lining?
a) Increases hydraulic capacity by reducing friction losses
b) Provides structural support to the tunnel
c) Keeps the tunnel free from water percolation
d) Increases the tunnel's cross-sectional area beyond design limits
Why should tunnel alignment be as straight as possible?
a) To reduce construction cost and head loss that occur with bends
b) Because curved tunnels are more aesthetically pleasing
c) To facilitate the use of a Tunnel Boring Machine exclusively
d) Because alignment has no significant impact on tunnel performance
Which of the following is a drawback of hydraulic tunnels?
a) Minimal environmental impact
b) Reduced seismic effects due to increased depth
c) High construction costs and risks
d) Optimal consumption of space
Which of the following factors is NOT typically considered when designing a hydraulic tunnel?
a) Discharge requirements
b) Seismic effects
c) Aesthetic appeal of tunnel lining
d) Quality and strength of surrounding rock
In tunnel construction, what is the primary purpose of installing rock bolts?
a) To increase the excavation speed
b) To provide temporary support and stabilize the tunnel roof
c) To measure water flow velocity
d) To reduce the tunnel lining thickness
Which of the following best describes a primary purpose of tunnel lining?
a) To expand the tunnel’s cross-sectional area
b) To support the structure, reduce water leakage, and minimize friction losses
c) To delay the tunnel’s operational start
d) To increase the weight of the tunnel
Which tunneling technique uses pre-made concrete segments that are assembled inside the tunnel?
a) Shotcrete lining
b) Precast concrete segment lining
c) Cast-in-place concrete lining
d) Steel liner plating
The New Austrian Tunnel Method (NATM) is primarily based on:
a) Relying exclusively on mechanical excavation methods
b) Utilizing the inherent strength of the surrounding rock along with continuous support adjustments
c) Installing a full tunnel lining before excavation
d) Using only full face blasting throughout construction
Why might an engineer choose full face blasting over heading and benching?
a) It is more suitable for variable, weak soil conditions
b) It allows for uniform excavation of the entire tunnel section, which is ideal in strong rock conditions
c) It minimizes noise pollution
d) It avoids the need for any tunnel support
In a free flow tunnel, discharge is calculated using Manning's equation. Which parameter is NOT included in Manning's equation?
a) Cross-sectional area (A)
b) Hydraulic radius (R)
c) Slope (S)
d) Acceleration due to gravity (g)
Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of Tunnel Boring Machines (TBM) in tunnel construction?
a) TBMs are generally less expensive than other methods
b) TBMs are ideal for long tunnels because they provide a fast and safe excavation process
c) TBMs are only suitable for shallow tunnels
d) TBMs eliminate the need for any lining or support systems
Which method is best described as excavating a trench from the surface, constructing a tunnel, and then restoring the surface?
a) Drilling and Blasting
b) Cut and Cover Method
c) Tunnel Boring Machine (TBM)
d) Heading and Benching
What does the term "Bridge Action Period" in tunnel engineering refer to?
a) The interval during which tunnel lining is applied
b) The time between excavation (blasting) and the onset of roof collapse in an unsupported tunnel
c) The duration of water flow tests
d) The time required for installing tunnel support devices
Why do hydraulic tunnels often experience minimal head loss compared to surface channels?
a) Because they are always constructed with a smooth concrete lining
b) Because they adopt the shortest possible route, reducing the length of the flow path
c) Because they always use circular cross-sections
d) Because the water is always under high pressure
Tunneling is required in case of ____________
a) Laying pavement
b) Laying road
c) On ground passage
d) Underground passage
The line at which the tunnel wall breaks from sloping outward can be given as _________
a) Spring line
b) Oval line
c) Centre line
d) Middle line
Which of the following should be considered while aligning a tunnel?
a) Atmospheric conditions
b) Hydrological conditions
c) Climatic conditions
d) Surface limits
Among the following, which doesn’t belong to tunnel classification?
a) Firm ground
b) Running ground
c) Rocky ground
d) Soft ground
Which method can be adopted if full face excavation is not possible?
a) Back bearing method
b) Plotting
c) Trenching
d) Benching
Among the following, which can be adopted for providing support for soft strata?
a) Bents of aluminum
b) Bents of iridium
c) Bents of steel
d) Bents of plastic
A steel cylinder which is pushed in the soft soil is determined as ________
a) Jar born
b) Shield
c) Rod
d) Pole
Which method can be adopted in case of rock tunneling?
a) Full face method
b) Benching
c) Tracing
d) Back bearing method
Which of the following can act as an alternative for blasting?
a) Tunneling
b) Continuous blasting
c) Sequential blasting
d) Fire-setting
Which of the following involves in the sequence of rocky strata?
a) Marking profile
b) Placing rocks
c) Improving foul gases
d) Recording values