In which type of water demand, minimum average consumption of water takes place?
a) Domestic water demand
b) Industrial water demand
c) Institutional and commercial water demand
d) Fire demand

Answer: d
Explanation: The minimum average water consumption takes place in fire demand. It accounts to 1lpcd which is very less but this water is required in very less duration.

What is the minimum water pressure available at fire hydrants?
a) 80-100kN/m²
b) 100-150kN/m²
c) 40-60kN/m²
d) 150-200kN/m²

Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum water pressure available at fire hydrants is 100-150kN/m2 i.e 10-15m of water head and it should be maintained for 4 to 5 hours.

Water lost in theft and waste contributes to how much % of total consumption?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20

Answer: c
Explanation: Water loss in thefts and wastes contributes to 15% of total consumption, which includes the water loss due to leakage or stolen due to illegal connection.

Which is the correct statement regarding per capita demand?
a) Daily water required by an individual
b) Water required for various purposes by a person
c) Water required by an individual in a year
d) Annual average amount of daily water required by one person

Answer: d
Explanation: The per capita demand is the annual average amount of daily water required by one person. It is denoted by q in litres per day per person.

Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Rich class consumes less water
b) Intermittent water supplies leads to less water consumption
c) Loss of water is more if the pressure in the distribution system is less
d) Water consumption is less in flush system

Answer: b
Explanation: Rich class consumes more water, loss of water is more if the pressure in distribution system is more, water consumption is more in flush system and b option is the only correct statement.

What is the design period for the water treatment unit?
a) 10 years
b) 15 years
c) 20 years
d) 30 years

Answer: b
Explanation: Water treatment unit is designed for 15 years and its design discharge is maximum daily demand.

What is the design discharge for intake structures?
a) Maximum daily demand
b) Maximum hourly demand
c) Maximum weekly demand
d) Average daily demand

Answer: a
Explanation: Intake structures and the pipe mains that carry water from intake structures to treatment plant are designed for maximum daily demand.

In which of the following units, design period is maximized?
a) Distribution system
b) Demand reservoir
c) Water treatment unit
d) Pipe mains

Answer: b
Explanation: Distribution system is designed for 30 years, the demand reservoir for 50 years, the water treatment unit for 15 years and the pipe mains for 30 years.

The size of suspended solids lies in the range of ________
a) 10-3 – 10-6 mm
b) 103 – 106 mm
c) 10-1 – 10-3 mm
d) 101 – 103 mm

Answer: c
Explanation: Size of suspended solids – 10-1 – 10-3 mm, size of colloidal solids – 10-3 – 10-6 mm, size of dissolved solids < 10-6 mm.

Suspended solids are measured by which of the following?
a) Turbidity rod
b) Gravimetric test
c) Chromatography
d) Jackson’s turbidity meter

Answer: b
Explanation: Turbidity rod and Jackson’s turbidity meter is used to find turbidity whereas chromatography is used to detect odour. Hence b is the correct answer.

The maximum permissible limit for suspended solids is ____________
a) 10 mg/l
b) 20 mg/l
c) 30 mg/l
d) 40 mg/l

Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum permissible limit for suspended solids is 30mg/l for testing waste water which is set by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

Identify the correct relation between the following?
a) Dissolved solid = Total solid + Suspended solid
b) Dissolved solid = Total solid – Suspended solid
c) Total solid = Dissolved solid / Suspended solid
d) Dissolved solid = Suspended solid – Total solid

Answer: b
Explanation: Dissolved solid is the difference between total solid and suspended solid. Suspended solid is non-filterable solid whereas dissolved solid is filterable solid.

Which method is used to measure the color of water?
a) Gravimetric analysis
b) Chromatography
c) Tintometer method
d) Hydrometer analysis

Answer: c
Explanation: The colors in water are measured by Tintometer method. It is measured on Burgess scale or cobalt scale by Nessler’s tube.

1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to _____
a) The color produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt
b) The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt
c) The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water
d) The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water

Answer: c
Explanation: 1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water. The true color unit is also called a Hazen unit.

The range for threshold odour number is __________
a) 0-3
b) 1-5
c) 1-3
d) 0-5

Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum value of Threshold odour number is 3 and its range is 1-3. The threshold odour number is used to measure the intensity of taste and odour.

One JTU is equivalent to turbidity produced by __________
a) 1mg of fine silica dissolved in 1L of distilled water
b) 1g of fine silica dissolved in 1L of distilled water
c) 1g of fine silica dissolved in 1ml of distilled water
d) 1mg of fine silica dissolved in 1ml of distilled water

Answer: a
Explanation: 1 JTU is equivalent to turbidity produced by 1mg of fine silica dissolved in 1L of distilled water. It is called as Jackson’s turbidity unit and is based on the absorption principle.

If the PO value is 6, what does it imply?
a) No perceptible odour
b) Very faint odour
c) Very distinct odour
d) Extremely strong odour

Answer: d
Explanation: The PO value indicates the odour intensity. 6 is the maximum PO value and it indicates extremely strong odour.

The range of temperature of water that is required to do the temperature test is __________
a) 10-250C
b) 0-250C
c) 10-300C
d) 20-300C

Answer: a
Explanation: To do the temperature test of water, its temperature should be between 100C and 250C and the temperature higher than 250C is considered objectionable.

Which of the following statement is wrong regarding turbidity?
a) It is an extent to which light is absorbed by particles in the water
b) It is expressed in ppm
c) It depends on the fineness of particle present in the water
d) Turbidity rod is a laboratory method to measure turbidity

Answer: d
Explanation: Turbidity rod is a field method not a laboratory method to measure turbidity.

The permissible limit of turbidity of domestic water is ____ ppm.
a) 5-10
b) 1-5
c) 10-50
d) 10-30

Answer: a
Explanation: According to WHO, the permissible limit for drinking water is 5NTU.

What is the full form of NTU in context with turbidity?
a) Number of transfer unit
b) Neurological turbidity unit
c) Nephelometric turbidity unit
d) Network terminal unit

Answer: c
Explanation: The value of turbidity measured by nephelometer is expressed in terms of NTU. Sometimes, it is referred as FTU or Formazin turbidity unit.

When depth of insertion of turbidity rod increases, the reading in the turbidity rod ___
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) First decrease, then increase
d) Remains constant

Answer: a
Explanation: Turbidity rod is inserted inside the water and the reading at which needle becomes invisible gives the turbidity.

Chlorides are estimated by titration with a standard silver nitrate solution by using _______ as an indicator.
a) Potassium manganate
b) Potassium chloride
c) Potassium chromate
d) Potassium dichromate

Answer: c
Explanation: 2-3 drops of potassium chromate are added to appropriate amount of water sample and then it is titrated with a standard solution of silver nitrate.

Which of the following statement is wrong regarding permanent hardness?
a) It is also called carbonate hardness
b) It is due to the presence of sulfates, chlorides and nitrates of calcium and magnesium
c) It cannot be removed by boiling
d) It requires special methods of water softening to get removed

Answer: a
Explanation: Permanent hardness is called non-carbonate hardness whereas temporary hardness is called carbonate hardness.

One degree of hardness is equivalent to ___ ppm.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 10
d) 100

Answer: b
Explanation: Water is said to have one degree of hardness when its soap destroying power is equivalent to the effect of 14.25mg of calcium carbonate in one litre of water.

a) Excessive hard water
b) Reasonably soft water
c) Very hard water
d) Hard water

Answer: d
Explanation: When the degree of hardness is 9, then it indicates the hard water. For excessive hard water, it is 15 and for very hard water, it is 11.

In which method of determining total hardness of water is based on the premise that hardness producing substance react with soap and form insoluble compounds before lather is produced?
a) Clark’s method
b) Hehner’s method
c) Versenate method
d) EDTA method

Answer: a
Explanation: In Clark’s method, total hardness is found by determining the standard soap solution required to obtain permanent lather with the water sample of known volume.

What is the indicator used in EDTA method?
a) Potassium chromate
b) Potassium dichromate
c) Potassium chloride
d) Erio chrome, black T

Answer: d
Explanation: Hardness is determined by using Ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid using Erio chrome, black T as indicator at a pH between 8.5 and 11.

The permissible limit of pH preferred for potable water is ___ ppm.
a) 6.5-9
b) 7-8.5
c) 10-14
d) 0-7

Answer: a
Explanation: The permissible limit of pH for potable water should not exceed 9 and should not be less than 6.5 and the preferred limit is 7-8.5.

What is the concentration of H+ ions in moles/L in water if the pOH value is 6?
a) 10-6
b) 10-7
c) 10-8
d) 10-9

Answer: c
Explanation: pH + pOH = 14
pOH = 6, so pH = 14-6 = 8
H+ = 10-pH = 10-8moles/L.

Which type of bacteria has a rod shaped structure?
a) Bacilli
b) Cocci
c) Spirilla
d) Vibrio

Answer: a
Explanation: Bacilli (Singular-Bacillus) has a rod shaped structure. Cocci has a spherically shaped structure, Spirilla has a spiral shaped structure and Vibrio has a comma shaped structure.

________ represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.
a) BOD
b) COD
c) MPN
d) Coliform index

Answer: c
Explanation: Most Probable Number is a number that indicates the bacterial density present in water.BOD and COD are the terms related to the oxygen required by microorganism to oxidize organic and inorganic matter.

Which of the following is a better test to identify Coliforms?
a) Coliform index
b) Multiple tube fermentation
c) MPN test
d) Membrane filter technique

Answer: d
Explanation: Membrane filter technique is a better and simpler technique to identify Coliforms. Various results are obtained in a shorter time than the multiple tube fermentation technique. MPN test and coliform index are not used now.

What is the temperature at which MPN test is performed?
a) 35oC
b) 37 oC
c) 40oC
d) 45 oC

Answer: b
Explanation: MPN test is performed at 37oC where different samples of water are mixed with lactose broth and incubated in test tubes for 48 hours.

Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding coliform bacteria?
i. It is gram negative
ii. It is rod shaped bacteria
iii. It is a harmless aerobic microorganism
a) i, ii, iii
b) ii, iii
c) i, iii
d) i, ii

Answer: a
Explanation: Coliform bacteria is a gram negative, rod shaped and harmless aerobic microorganism which is found in the intestine of warm blooded animals including human beings.

Which of the following is the disease caused by bacterial infections?
a) Amoebic dysentery
b) Infectious hepatitis
c) Typhoid fever
d) Poliomyelitis

Answer: c
Explanation: Amoebic dysentery is caused by protozoan infection, Infectious hepatitis and Poliomyelitis are caused by a viral infection and Typhoid fever is caused by a bacterial infection.

The number of bacterial colonies by Agar plate count test should not exceed ____ per ml for potable water.
a) 1
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1000

Answer: c
Explanation: Agar plate count test is a test to count the number of bacterial colonies growing on a specified medium and the permissible limit for the number of bacterial colonies is 100 per ml.

If the acid and gas are formed in the multiple tube fermentation technique, the test is _____
a) Positive
b) Continued
c) Negative
d) Discarded

Answer: a
Explanation: The acid and gas formation in the Multiple tube fermentation technique indicates that the test is positive and there are coliform bacteria in the sample.

Which bacteria cause the reddish brown deposits in the tank?
a) Escherichia coli bacteria
b) Bacterium coli bacteria
c) Iron bacteria
d) Sulphur bacteria

Answer: c
Explanation: The growth of Iron bacteria causes the discoloration of tank due to reddish brown deposits and turbidity in water.

Which bacteria results in the corrosion of iron and steel pipes embedded in soil?
a) Escherichia coli bacteria
b) Bacterium coli bacteria
c) Iron bacteria
d) Sulphur bacteria

Answer: d
Explanation: Sulphur bacteria cause the corrosion of iron and steel pipes embedded in soil. They are both aerobic and anaerobic and are more destructive in marshy or clay soils where anaerobic conditions prevails.

What is the primary purpose of screening in water treatment?
a) To remove dissolved chemicals
b) To remove bulky, suspended, or floating matters
c) To disinfect water
d) To adjust water hardness

Answer: b
Explanation: Screening is used to remove bulky suspended and floating matters (such as leaves, branches, plastics, etc.), thereby reducing the load on downstream treatment processes.

Which process involves retaining water in a quiescent basin so that heavy particles settle by gravity?
a) Filtration
b) Adsorption
c) Plain sedimentation
d) Coagulation

Answer: c
Explanation: Plain sedimentation relies on gravity to allow heavier suspended particles to settle as sludge when the water is held motionless in a tank.

According to Stokes' law, the settling velocity (vₛ) of a small spherical particle is directly proportional to which of the following?
a) Its diameter
b) The square of its diameter
c) The cube of its diameter
d) The square root of its diameter

Answer: b
Explanation: Stokes' law states that vₛ = [g (ρₚ - ρ_w) d²] / (18 μ), meaning the settling velocity is proportional to the square of the particle’s diameter.

Why is retention time an essential factor in the design of a sedimentation tank?
a) It ensures that water temperature is maintained
b) It provides sufficient time for suspended solids to settle by gravity
c) It increases the water pH levels
d) It speeds up chemical reactions in the water

Answer: b
Explanation: Retention time is the duration water is held in the tank, allowing heavier particles enough time to settle out by gravity.

In the design of a sedimentation tank, the overall depth (D) is calculated as the sum of:
a) Freeboard and sludge zone depth only
b) Inlet depth and outlet depth only
c) Freeboard, sludge zone depth, and the effective depth of the settling zone
d) The effective depth of the settling zone alone

Answer: c
Explanation: Overall depth (D) is determined by D = FB + d + d', where FB is the freeboard, d is the depth of the sludge zone, and d' is the effective depth of the settling zone.

Sedimentation tanks are classified based on the direction of water flow. Which of the following is NOT a recognized classification based on flow direction?
a) Horizontal flow tanks
b) Vertical flow tanks
c) Diagonal flow tanks
d) Rectangular tanks with longitudinal flow

Answer: c
Explanation: Sedimentation tanks are typically classified as horizontal (which includes rectangular and circular designs) and vertical flow tanks. Diagonal flow tanks are not a standard classification.

In sedimentation tank design, the Surface Overflow Rate (SOR) is defined as Q/(B∙I). What does SOR indicate?
a) The chemical dosage rate
b) The rate at which water exits the tank surface
c) The settling velocity of particles
d) The retention time of the sludge

Answer: b
Explanation: SOR represents the surface overflow rate or surface loading, which is the rate at which water flows off the surface of the sedimentation tank.

According to design guidelines, what retention time is typically recommended for a closed continuous water treatment system (PS) using sedimentation?
a) 1–4 hours
b) 4–8 hours
c) 8–12 hours
d) 30–36 hours

Answer: b
Explanation: For closed continuous systems (which include disinfection and faucet installations), the typical retention time is between 4 and 8 hours to ensure effective sedimentation.

Which of the following is not an objective of water treatment?
a) To remove objectionable colour and odor
b) To kill pathogens
c) To concentrate impurities
d) To reduce water hardness

Answer: c
Explanation: Water treatment aims to reduce impurities, remove objectionable properties, and kill pathogens—not to concentrate impurities.

Where is the screening operation typically located in a water treatment plant?
a) At the raw-water intake or pumping station
b) In the disinfection unit
c) At the filtration stage
d) In the final distribution system

Answer: a
Explanation: Screening is performed at the raw-water intake or pumping station to remove bulky, suspended, or floating materials before further treatment.

What is the primary purpose of a coarse screen?
a) To remove fine sediment particles
b) To remove bulky suspended solids
c) To dissolve organic impurities
d) To adjust the water pH

Answer: b
Explanation: Coarse screens are designed to remove larger, unsightly, or potentially damaging suspended solids (e.g., leaves, branches, plastics) that could overload downstream processes.

Which process relies on gravity alone to remove heavy suspended particles without the use of chemicals?
a) Filtration
b) Plain sedimentation
c) Coagulation
d) Flocculation

Answer: b
Explanation: Plain sedimentation retains water in a quiescent tank so that gravity can settle heavy suspended particles (like silt or sand) without adding chemicals.

Stokes’ law is used to determine which of the following for a spherical particle?
a) Its chemical composition
b) Its settling velocity
c) Its color intensity
d) Its temperature sensitivity

Answer: b
Explanation: Stokes’ law calculates the settling velocity (vₛ) of spherical particles in a fluid based on their diameter, density difference, gravity, and fluid viscosity.

In Stokes’ law, which variable represents the dynamic viscosity of the water?
a) ρw
b) g
c) d
d) μ (mu)

Answer: d
Explanation: The symbol μ (mu) in Stokes’ law denotes the dynamic viscosity of the fluid (water), which affects the settling velocity.

In the design of a sedimentation tank, what does the detention time refer to?
a) The time taken to pump water through the system
b) The interval between cleaning cycles
c) The duration water is retained in the tank for settling
d) The time required for chemical reactions during coagulation

Answer: c
Explanation: Detention time is the period during which water is held in the sedimentation tank, allowing suspended particles enough time to settle by gravity.

In sedimentation tank design, the overall depth (D) is calculated as the sum of which components?
a) Inlet zone depth and outlet zone depth
b) Freeboard, sludge zone depth, and effective settling depth
c) Only the effective settling depth
d) Sludge zone depth and the chemical dosing depth

Answer: b
Explanation: Overall depth (D) is calculated as D = FB (freeboard) + d (sludge zone depth) + d' (effective depth of the settling zone), ensuring both operational flexibility and safety.

Which of the following is a common construction material for sedimentation tanks?
a) Reinforced Cement Concrete (RCC)
b) Wood
c) Plastic
d) Glass

Answer: a
Explanation: Sedimentation tanks are typically constructed using RCC due to its durability, strength, and resistance to chemicals.

What is a major disadvantage of quiescent (fill and draw) sedimentation tanks?
a) They are too complex to operate
b) They require low retention times
c) They demand large volumes and long cycle times
d) They cannot remove coarse particles effectively

Answer: c
Explanation: Quiescent sedimentation tanks need long retention times (typically 30–36 hours) and large volumes, making them less attractive in modern continuous flow operations.

Which type of sedimentation tank processes water continuously without a fill and draw cycle?
a) Quiescent tank
b) Batch tank
c) Continuous flow tank
d) Static tank

Answer: c
Explanation: Continuous flow tanks operate with a constant inflow and withdrawal of water, thus eliminating the stop–start operation of quiescent (batch) tanks.

In continuous flow sedimentation tanks, what does the Surface Overflow Rate (SOR) indicate?
a) The chemical dosing rate
b) The rate at which water flows over the surface of the settling zone
c) The rate of sludge removal
d) The sediment deposition velocity

Answer: b
Explanation: The Surface Overflow Rate (SOR), calculated as Q/(B∙I), represents the rate at which water leaves the surface of the sedimentation tank, ensuring that particles have sufficient time to settle.

What is the purpose of a hopper bottom in vertical flow sedimentation tanks?
a) To improve the aesthetics of the tank
b) To facilitate the collection and removal of settled sludge
c) To increase the freeboard of the tank
d) To reduce the inflow velocity

Answer: b
Explanation: A hopper bottom design allows for easy collection and removal of the settled sludge, enhancing the tank’s overall efficiency.

Under Stokes’ law for laminar flow, how does the settling velocity (vₛ) change with particle diameter (d)?
a) vₛ is independent of d
b) vₛ ∝ d
c) vₛ ∝ d²
d) vₛ ∝ d³

Answer: c
Explanation: According to Stokes’ law, the settling velocity of a spherical particle is proportional to the square of its diameter (vₛ = [g(ρₚ – ρ_w)d²] / [18μ]).

Which sedimentation tank design employs a central feed to produce a radial flow pattern?
a) Rectangular tank with longitudinal flow
b) Circular tank with central feed
c) Vertical flow tank
d) Diagonal flow tank

Answer: b
Explanation: A circular tank with a central feed creates a radial flow pattern, which is effective in evenly distributing the raw water and optimizing settling.

What is the role of freeboard (FB) in the design of a sedimentation tank?
a) To store extra water to prevent overflow
b) To increase the depth of the sludge zone
c) To accommodate fluctuations in water level and prevent overtopping
d) To regulate the incoming water velocity

Answer: c
Explanation: The freeboard is the extra vertical space above the normal water level, designed to accommodate fluctuations, waves, or surges and thus prevent overtopping of the tank.

Which term describes the process of allowing water to remain static in a settling zone so that solid particles can settle by gravity?
a) Coagulation
b) Flocculation
c) Sedimentation
d) Filtration

Answer: c
Explanation: Sedimentation is the process that allows particles to settle out of water by gravity, forming sludge at the bottom.

The overall length (L) of a sedimentation tank is calculated using the equation L = Lin + I + Lout. What does this sum represent?
a) The total effective flow length through the tank
b) The circumference of the tank
c) The effective depth of the settling zone
d) The total water storage volume

Answer: a
Explanation: This equation represents the total effective flow length of the tank–combining the inlet zone, the settling (effective) zone, and the outlet zone.

Which factor is least likely to affect the efficiency of plain sedimentation in a tank?
a) Detention time
b) Flow velocity
c) Colour of suspended particles
d) Particle density

Answer: c
Explanation: While particle size, density, flow velocity, and retention time are important, the color of the suspended particles does not have any bearing on their rate of settling.

In water treatment, what does the term "turbidity" refer to?
a) The concentration of dissolved gases
b) The clarity of the water
c) The presence of light-scattering suspended particles
d) The water’s pH level

Answer: c
Explanation: Turbidity describes the cloudiness or haziness of water caused by the presence of suspended particles that scatter light.

For a discrete particle reaching point A in a sedimentation tank, what determines its actual movement?
a) Horizontal velocity only (Vh)
b) Settling velocity only (vs)
c) The vector sum of Vh and vs
d) The freeboard height

Answer: c
Explanation: The actual path of a discrete particle is determined by the vector sum of its horizontal velocity (Vh) and its settling velocity (vs).

What does the Surface Overflow Rate (SOR) represent in the design of sedimentation tanks?
a) The ratio of flow velocity to detention time
b) The overflow rate or surface loading, defined as Q/(B∙I)
c) The difference between freeboard and sludge depth
d) The rate at which coagulants are added

Answer: b
Explanation: SOR represents the surface loading or overflow rate of the sedimentation tank and is calculated as Q divided by the product of tank width (B) and effective length (I).

For closed continuous water treatment systems (PS), what is the typical detention time in sedimentation tanks?
a) 1–4 hours
b) 4–8 hours
c) 8–12 hours
d) 12–16 hours

Answer: b
Explanation: Closed continuous systems typically have a detention time between 4 and 8 hours to ensure effective sedimentation.

What is the typical effective depth (d) used in the design of sedimentation tanks?
a) 1–2 m
b) 2.5–5 m
c) 5–7 m
d) 7–10 m

Answer: b
Explanation: The effective depth used in sedimentation tank design is generally between 2.5 and 5 m, with around 3 m being typical.

In sedimentation tank design, which parameter is calculated as Q/(B∙I)?
a) Detention time
b) Surface Overflow Rate (SOR)
c) Flow velocity
d) Freeboard

Answer: b
Explanation: SOR (Surface Overflow Rate) is determined by dividing the design flow Q by the product of tank width (B) and effective length (I).

In rectangular sedimentation tank design, what is the recommended range for the length-to-width ratio (l/B)?
a) 1 to 2
b) 2 to 3
c) 3 to 5
d) 5 to 7

Answer: c
Explanation: The recommended length-to-width ratio for rectangular sedimentation tanks is typically between 3 and 5.

Which unit in water treatment is responsible for removing bulky, suspended, or floating matters?
a) Screening
b) Clarification
c) Filtration
d) Sedimentation

Answer: a
Explanation: Screening is the process where bulky, suspended, or floating debris is removed from the raw water before further treatment.

What is the primary purpose of coagulation in water treatment?
a) To remove large debris
b) To form flocs from fine suspended/colloidal impurities
c) To disinfect water
d) To remove dissolved gases

Answer: b
Explanation: Coagulation destabilizes colloidal particles and allows them to form flocs that can subsequently be removed during sedimentation.

Which coagulant is commonly used when water contains sufficient bicarbonate alkalinity?
a) Iron salts
b) Chlorinated copperas
c) Aluminum sulphate (alum)
d) Sodium aluminate

Answer: c
Explanation: Aluminum sulphate (alum) is widely used as a coagulant in water treatment where there is adequate bicarbonate alkalinity.

What is the effective pH range for using aluminum sulphate (alum) as a coagulant?
a) 4.5–6.0
b) 6.5–8.5
c) 8.5–10.0
d) 10.0–12.0

Answer: b
Explanation: Alum is effective in the pH range of 6.5 to 8.5.

Which coagulant is often used in sewage treatment?
a) Aluminum sulphate (alum)
b) Iron salts
c) Chlorinated copperas
d) Sodium aluminate

Answer: b
Explanation: Iron salts (such as ferrous or ferric sulphate and ferric chloride) are commonly used in sewage treatment.

After adding the coagulant in water treatment, which two processes follow to aid in particle removal?
a) Sedimentation and filtration
b) Coagulation and disinfection
c) Coagulation and flocculation
d) Screening and mixing

Answer: c
Explanation: When a coagulant is added, the process of coagulation is followed by flocculation, which leads to the formation of larger flocs that settle more readily.

What is the main objective of the mixing step in the coagulation process?
a) To rapidly settle the particles
b) To fully disperse the coagulant throughout the water
c) To generate turbulence for sedimentation
d) To separate sludge from water

Answer: b
Explanation: The mixing step is crucial to ensure that the coagulant is evenly dispersed throughout the water for effective coagulation.

Which characteristic best describes the flocculation process in water treatment?
a) Rapid and vigorous mixing
b) Slow stirring that permits floc buildup
c) Immediate particle sedimentation
d) High-velocity flow in the flocculator

Answer: b
Explanation: Flocculation involves slow stirring, which allows the coagulated particles to collide and form larger flocs that can settle in the sedimentation tank.

In a combined coagulation–sedimentation tank for smaller projects, what is the typical detention period for the sedimentation phase?
a) 15–40 minutes
b) 3–4 hours
c) 4–8 hours
d) 6–12 hours

Answer: b
Explanation: In combined coagulation–sedimentation systems, the sedimentation phase typically has a detention period of 3 to 4 hours.

Which design consideration is important in mixing basins used for coagulation?
a) End openings between baffles and basin wall should not exceed 0.6 m
b) Channel velocity must be above 1 m/s
c) Detention time must be less than 5 minutes
d) The basin should be free of any baffles

Answer: a
Explanation: One important design aspect of mixing basins is that the end openings between the baffle and the basin wall are controlled (typically not exceeding 0.6 m) to ensure proper mixing.

Which process typically follows sedimentation in a conventional water treatment plant?
a) Screening
b) Filtration
c) Coagulation
d) Disinfection

Answer: b
Explanation: After sedimentation, the water treatment process usually proceeds with filtration to remove any remaining fine particles.

The effectiveness of a sedimentation tank is largely determined by which key parameter?
a) Freeboard
b) Surface Overflow Rate (SOR)
c) Mixing intensity
d) Chemical dosing rate

Answer: b
Explanation: The Surface Overflow Rate (SOR), defined as Q/(B∙I), is critical to ensure the tank operates efficiently and removes particles effectively.

For a discrete particle in a sedimentation tank to be effectively removed, its settling velocity (vₛ) must be:
a) Less than Q/(B∙I)
b) Equal to Q/(B∙I)
c) Greater than or equal to Q/(B∙I)
d) Unrelated to Q/(B∙I)

Answer: c
Explanation: For effective removal, the particle’s settling velocity should be greater than or equal to the surface overflow rate (Q/(B∙I)).

The effective volume (V) of a rectangular sedimentation tank is given by:
a) V = l + B + d
b) V = l × B × d
c) V = Q/(B × d)
d) V = B/(l × d)

Answer: b
Explanation: The effective volume of a rectangular tank is calculated as the product of its effective length (l), width (B), and effective depth (d).

Which statement best describes circular sedimentation tanks?
a) They have a rectangular layout with fixed dimensions.
b) Their diameter typically ranges up to 30 m (or sometimes up to 60 m) with a bottom slope designed as a gradual slope (e.g., 1:12) from the periphery to the center.
c) They rely solely on chemical treatment for sedimentation.
d) They are not used in water treatment due to poor performance.

Answer: b
Explanation: Circular tanks are designed with a diameter up to 30 m (sometimes 60 m) and a bottom slope (often 1:12), ensuring an effective settling process.

What is the primary purpose of free board in sedimentation tank design?
a) To store extra water for future use
b) To provide additional vertical space to accommodate water level fluctuations and wind effects
c) To increase the tank’s sediment capacity
d) To reduce the Surface Overflow Rate (SOR)

Answer: b
Explanation: Free board provides extra vertical space to accommodate fluctuations in water level (due to wind, waves, etc.) and prevent overtopping.

What is the typical depth range of the sludge zone in sedimentation tanks?
a) 0.1 to 0.3 m
b) 0.5 to 1 m
c) 1 to 2 m
d) 2 to 3 m

Answer: b
Explanation: The sludge zone typically has a depth ranging from 0.5 to 1 m, with 1 m being common in practice.

In rectangular sedimentation tanks, the typical inlet and outlet zone lengths are:
a) 0.05 to 0.1 m
b) 0.2 to 1 m
c) 1 to 2 m
d) 2 to 3 m

Answer: b
Explanation: Inlet and outlet zones in rectangular tanks are generally designed with lengths in the range of 0.2 to 1 m.

In the coagulation process, the primary objective is to:
a) Remove large debris from raw water
b) Form flocs from fine suspended and colloidal impurities
c) Adjust the water’s temperature
d) Remove dissolved gases

Answer: b
Explanation: Coagulation is used to destabilize fine suspended impurities and promote floc formation, which aids in their subsequent removal.

Which of the following is the effective pH range for using aluminum sulphate (alum) as a coagulant?
a) 4.0 to 5.5
b) 6.5 to 8.5
c) 8.5 to 10.0
d) 10.0 to 12.0

Answer: b
Explanation: Alum is effective when the water pH is maintained between 6.5 and 8.5.

What is the typical velocity range in a mixing basin for the coagulation process?
a) 0.05 m/s to 0.1 m/s
b) 0.15 m/s to 0.45 m/s
c) 0.5 m/s to 1 m/s
d) 1 m/s to 1.5 m/s

Answer: b
Explanation: Mixing basins typically have a channel velocity in the range of 0.15 m/s to 0.45 m/s to ensure thorough dispersion of the coagulant.

Which design factor in the flocculation basin helps prevent floc breakage?
a) High chemical dosage
b) An outflow velocity maintained between 0.15 to 0.25 m/s
c) Increased free board
d) Very high turbulence levels

Answer: b
Explanation: Maintaining a controlled outflow velocity between 0.15 and 0.25 m/s helps in preventing the flocs from breaking up during flocculation.

In a combined coagulation–sedimentation tank for small projects, the detention period for the floc chamber is typically:
a) 5–10 minutes
b) 15–40 minutes
c) 1–2 hours
d) 3–4 hours

Answer: b
Explanation: The detention period in the floc chamber is usually between 15 to 40 minutes.

During jar tests to determine optimum coagulant dosage, which water characteristic is most critical?
a) Water temperature
b) Bicarbonate alkalinity
c) Chlorine residual
d) Freeboard height

Answer: b
Explanation: Bicarbonate alkalinity significantly influences the coagulant dose required, making it a key factor in jar test analyses.

Which of the following coagulants is generally considered more cost-effective for public water supplies?
a) Sodium aluminate
b) Aluminum sulphate (alum)
c) Chlorinated copperas
d) Iron salts

Answer: b
Explanation: Aluminum sulphate (alum) is widely used and is generally more cost-effective for treating public water supplies.

The primary principle behind the flocculation process in water treatment is to:
a) Achieve high-speed mixing for rapid particle break-up
b) Utilize slow stirring to promote collisions and floc buildup
c) Initiate rapid sedimentation of dissolved substances
d) Adjust the water pH quickly

Answer: b
Explanation: Flocculation employs slow stirring to allow coagulated particles to collide and form larger, settleable flocs.

In a coagulation–sedimentation tank for small projects, the sedimentation phase typically has a detention period of:
a) 15–40 minutes
b) 1–2 hours
c) 3–4 hours
d) 6–8 hours

Answer: c
Explanation: The sedimentation phase in such tanks is typically designed for a detention period of 3 to 4 hours.

Which feature is commonly incorporated into mixing basins to ensure thorough dispersion of the coagulant?
a) A wide, open basin without partitions
b) The use of baffle walls
c) Increased depth of the sludge zone
d) A larger free board area

Answer: b
Explanation: Baffle walls in the mixing basin help to promote uniform mixing and dispersion of the coagulant.

What is the typical detention period recommended for the flocculation process?
a) 1–5 minutes
b) 10–40 minutes
c) 1–2 hours
d) 2–3 hours

Answer: b
Explanation: The flocculation process is generally designed for a detention period of about 10 to 40 minutes.

How does Brownian motion affect colloidal particles in water treatment?
a) It enhances their settling rate.
b) It keeps them in suspension, making removal more difficult.
c) It causes rapid aggregation into heavy flocs.
d) It increases the water’s density.

Answer: b
Explanation: Brownian motion tends to keep very fine, electrically charged colloidal particles suspended in the water.

Connect with Us

Follow us on social media to stay updated with the latest resources and news.